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rules.html
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<title>Rulings</title>
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<h4><span class="highlight">Some</span> Rulings On Islamic Jurispudence</h4>
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<ul>
<p>
<li><h3>The sharia ruling concerning arrangement when performing the acts of ablution</h3></li>
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<p>
<b>A:</b> Some faqihs consider the arrangement when performing the acts of ablution to be one of "condition" that must be met for the validity the face first of all hands up to the elbows then rubbing the head then washing the feet with the ankles. This is obligatory according to Ash-Shafii and Ahmad while Abu Hanifah says that it is an act of the sunnah. And, Allah Knows Best
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<li><h3>The sharia ruling concerning muwalah or continuation when performing ablution</h3></li></p>
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<b>A:</b>Muwalah is to "continue" washing the specified organs of ablution one after the other immediately, or in other words to wash the following organ before the previous one dries. <p>Scholars have differd concerning this matter, as some of them consider it to be an obligation while some others regard it as an act of the sunnah. And, Allah Knows Best.</p> </p>
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<li><h3>The sharia ruling concerning any object that prevents water from reaching any of the specified organs of ablution</li></p>
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<b>A:</b>One of the conditions that must be fufilled for the validity of ablution is that none of the organs which water must reach is to be covered with any thing that prevents water from reaching it, such as wax, blacktop, dough, as well as the substances that many women put on their nails in what is known as "manicure" and "pedicure". Moreever and important still, as long as ablution is not valid because of such things, such things, also prayer is not valid if performed with an ablution performed while the organs specified in it are covered with any of them. And, Allah Knows Best.</p>
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<li><h3>The sharia ruling concerning a man who doubt if he is still of ablution or not?</h3></li></p>
<p
><b>A:</b> If a man performs ablution then doubts if it been invalidated or not, he is to deal with the matter according to the principle of "certainty", that is "Certainty doeas not fade away because of doubt". In other words, he remains in a state of ablution, in spite of his doubts, unless he becomes "certain" that he has been afflicted with a hadath. </p><p> The same ruling applies if he is afflicted with hadath then doubts if he has done ablution or not: the ruling here is that is "certainly" in a state of hadath, and so it is not permissible for him to perform prayer until he perform ablution. This is simply becuase "doubt" here is concerning hadath, which invalidates ablution, and not concerning ablution itself.</p>
<p> The original proof in this regard is the hadith narrated by Al-Bukhari and MUslim on the authority of Abdullah Ibn Zayd, who said </p>
"Someone complained to the prophet (PBUH) about (the case of) a man who imagines, while performing prayer, that he has been afflicted by something (i.e.,hadath), and he (PBUH) said,'He must not leave (the prayer) unless he hears the sound or finds wind(i.e.,smells wind).<sup>,1"2</sup>
<p>And, Allah Knows Best</p>
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<li><h3>The istihadah and what is the sharia ruling concerning it?</h3></li></p>
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<b>A:</b>Istihadah is that a woman undergoes vaginal bleeding at times other than those known for menstruation and postnatal bleeding at atime connected to either of them, and it results from cutting blood vessel and so the blood is red and the bleeding resulting from this does not stop except when this cutting has been cured.</p>
<p>
A woman who has such istihadah-based on bleeding is regarded as being in astate of purification, and so she can perform prayer and observe fasting as unanimously agreed upon by scholars. It is also worth mentioning that her husband can have intercourse with as long as this takes time other than that of menstruation, as maintained by most scholars.<sup>1</sup> </p>
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And, Allah Knows Best.</p> </p>
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<li><h3>The sharia ruling concerning intercourse that takes place betwen a woman and his immature husband? Must they perform ghusl?</li></h3>
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<p>
<b>A:</b>Ibn Qudamah has mentioned in his Al-Mugni that Imam Ahmad maintains that in either of the two cases mentioned in the question both the man and the girl and the woman and the boy must perform ghusl. Imam Ahmad commented,"Would 'Aisha not perform ghusl whenever the Prophet (PBUH) copulated with her?<sup>""2</sup>meaning when she was still a child.And, Allah Knows Best</sup></h3></li>
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<li><h3>The sharia ruling concerning a woman whose husband had intercourse with her then her period started before performing ghusl</li>
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<b>A:</b>She does not have to perform ghusl because of janabah yet when she performs ghusl after the end of her menses she should perform it "once" for "both" menstruation and janabah, "intending" this before starting the ghusl. This is the view of Imam Ahamd. However some scholars like AN-Nakhi, say that she maust perform ghusl for janabah then perform it after the end of her menses. Some others maintain that it is obligatory upo her to wash her vagina only. Still, Ahmad's view is the correct one. And, Allah Knows Best.
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<li><h3>The sharia ruling concerning wiping over bandages?</h3></li>
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<b>A:</b>For the same purpose of making things easy for the Muslim, Islam allows him to wipe over bandages because, under such circumstances the bandaged wounds cicatrization and recovery and this requires that they should not be washed with water evry now and then. That is why the prophet (PBUH) allowed 'Alimay Allah be pleased with him, to wipe over the bandage when his wrist was broken on the day of Uhud. And, Allah Knows Best.
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